Solved Paper of DU LLM Entrance Test, 2015 with Explanation

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1. Which of the following is a correct pair?

A. Temple of Preah Vihear Case – Res Judicata × State Sovereignty √

B. Island of Palmas case- Estoppel × A title that is inchoate cannot prevail over a definite title found on the continuous and peaceful display of sovereignty

C. U.N. Administrative Tribunal Case – Prescription × Effect of Awards of Compensation Made by the United Nations Administrative Tribunal

D. Chorzow Factory case – Nemo judex in causa sua

Correct Answer: D, It is a principle of natural justice that no person can judge a case in which they have an interest

2. Which one of the following zones was not specifically dealt with under four Geneva Conventions on Law of the Sea of 1958?

A. Contiguous zone

B. High Sea

C. Exclusive Economic Zone

D. Territorial Sea

Correct Answer: C

3. Which of the following instruments entitles an individual to file petition before Human Rights Committee?

A. Universal Declaration of Human Rights

B. International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights

C. First optional protocol to International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights

D. Second Optional Protocol to International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights

Correct Answer: C

4. What is the status of European Commission of Human Rights at Present

A. It exists and investigates the facts on the petition of a national from any European Country.

B. It exists, but investigates the facts only when any of the state parties so requests.

C. It exists, but its working has been put on hold at present.

D. It was abolished and it does not exist

Correct Answer: D

5. Which of the following international instruments provide for the abolition of death penalty?

A. International Covenant of Civil and Political Rights

B. First Optional Protocol to International Covenant of Civil and Political Rights.

C. Second Optional Protocol to International Covenant of Civil and Political Rights

D. Optional Protocol to International Covenant of Economic, Social and Cultural Rights

Correct Answer: C

6. The ILC draft Code on Responsibility of states for Internationally Wrongful Acts of 2001 lays down ____ as a form of reparation for the injury caused by internationally wrongful act.

A. Servitude

B. Retaliation

C. Satisfaction

D. Referendum

Correct Answer: C, Article 37

7. Which of the following is not a principle under Article 2 of the United Nations Charter?

A. Principle of sovereign equality

B. Principle of permanent sovereignty over natural resources.

C. Principle of resolving international disputes by peaceful means

D. Principle of refraining from the threat or use of force.

Correct Answer: B

8. The landlocked states may have access to surplus of the allowable catch in the____ of the coastal state

A. Contiguous zone

B. Territorial Sea

C. Exclusive Economic Zone

D. Both Contiguous zone and EEZ

Correct Answer: C

9. “Disputes arising out of contract shall be referred to municipal courts of state which grants concessions.” This is known as:

A. Absolute liability theory

B. Calvo Clause

C. Blackstonian doctrine (The principle that courts do not create the law but merely discover and announce it)

D. Rule of exhaustion of local remedies

Correct Answer: B

10. According to U.N. Convention on Law of the Sea 1982, the Contiguous zone is established to exercise the control necessary to prevent and punish infringement of coastal state’s laws relating to:

A. Customs, fiscal, immigration, and sanitation

B. Security, customs, fiscal, immigration, and sanitation

C. Environment, Security, Customs, fiscal and sanitation

D. Research, Security, customs, fiscal and sanitation

Correct Answer: A, Article 33

11. The legality of the “Uniting for Peace” Resolution of the General Assembly has been upheld by the International Court of Justice in:

A. Certain Expenses of the United Nations case

B. Conditions of Membership in the United Nations case

C. Advisory opinion on the legality of the use of Nuclear weapons case

D. Nicargua case

Correct Answer: A

12. In maintaining international peace and security, the Security Council has:

A. exclusive responsibility

B. primary responsibility

C. both primary and exclusive responsibility

D. secondary responsibility

Correct Answer: B

13. The Agreement of 1994 relating to the implementation of Part XI of the U.N. Convention on Law of the Sea is related to:

A. Fishing at the High Seas

B. Contiguous zone

C. Exclusive Economic Zone

D. Seabed mining

Correct Answer: D

14. Under which Article of the U.N. Charter the Security Council has the power to use force against a state?

A. Article 41

B. article 40

C. Article 2(4)

D. Article 42

Correct Answer: D

15. A decision of the International Court of Justice has a binding effect on

A. parties alone in that particular case

B. the states in similar situations

C. national courts in similar circumstances.

D. all the states.

Correct Answer: A

16. Which of the following constitutes patentable subject matter?

I. a toxin-where such toxin is found on the skin of a previously unknown tree frog of the Amazon basin, which, when administered to patients with a certain cell cancer, cause a substantial reduction in the number cancerous cells.

II. an idea-where such idea is that there is a mathematical relation among (1) the exposure time of a tumor to a specified alpha-radiation emitting source, (2) the size of the tumor in cubic centimeters, and (3) the success rate of the procedure as determined by survival rate at 5 years.

III. Kidney cells – where such cells are found in a certain variety of wild pigs.

IV. A new laparoscopic surgical technique – where such technique bears improved results in patient cure

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. I,II and III

B. II, III and IV

C. all of the above

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: D, Section 3 & 4 of Patents Act

17. If a trademark is registered in India under the Trade Marks Act, 1999; how long will trademark protection last, assuming renewal?

A. 20 years from the date of the application.

B. 28 years, plus a renewal term of an additional 28 years, for a total of 56 years.

C. the life of the registrant plus 70 years

D. potentially forever; if there is continued commercial use

Correct Answer: D

18. Note the following:

I. The shape of light bulb, where the shape functions to make the light bulb more energy-efficient and also serves to identify the commercial source of the light bulb
II. The term “comfortable shoes” for shoes that have just been introduced to the market.
III. The made-up term “Lappy” for a brand of laptops
Which of the following is likely to be granted registration under the Present Trade Act, 1999?

A. I only

B. II only

C. I,II and III

D. None of I, II and III

Correct Answer: D, Section 9 & 11 of Trademarks Act, 1999

19. Which of the following can be patented under the Patents Act, 1970?

A. Micro organisms

B. Seeds

C. Business Methods

D. Topography of Integrated Circuits

Correct Answer: A

20. Which of the following is not copyrightable?

A. a false biography that defames its subject

B. a database of real phone numbers.

C. the instruction booklet for a useful process

D. an opera that contains dramatic as well as musical elements

Correct Answer: A

21. Copyright could most clearly be claimed over which of the following?

A. a novel computer program

B. a two-word slogan for a chain of fitness centers.

C. the shape of a doorknob

D. an idea on how one could establish contact with extra-terrestrials.

Correct Answer: A, Section 14 – Meaning of Copyright

22. Which of the following is an inchoate crime?

A. Public Nuisance

B. Criminal Attempt

C. Unlawful assembly

D. Riot

Correct Answer: B

23. According to Section 57 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 a person aggrieved by an order made by the Controller or an adjudicating officer may prefer an appeal to:

A. Cyber Appellate Tribunal

B. High Court

C. Supreme Court

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: A, Appeal to Cyber Appellate Tribunal

24. Which word under Section 90 A of IT Act is substituted for digital signature?

A. Electronic Signature

B. Internet Signature

C. Computer Signature

D. All of the above

Correct Answer: A

25. What is the appellate authority for the order against National Company Law Appellate Tribunal?

A. District Court

B. High Court

C. Supreme Court

D. Company Board Committee

Correct Answer: C

26. In which of the following cases, the doctrine of Indoor Management was laid down?

A. Salmond v. Salmond & Co. Ltd.

B. Ashbury Railway Carriage and Iron Co. Ltd. V Riche (ultra vires doctrine)

C. Foss v. Harbottle

D. Royal British Bank v. Turquand

Correct Answer: D

27. In what way the doctrine of ultra vires is applied to the companies?

A. the activities should be confined within the objects as specified in the Memorandum of Association

B. the members are not allowed to file a suit on behalf of the company

C. Employees of the company must work during the office hours.

D. a contract in which directors commit breach of fiduciary duty

Correct Answer: A

28. In which of the following cases corporate veil of the company has not been lifted by the court:

A. Gilford Motor Co. Ltd v. Horne (piercing the corporate veil)

B. Daimler Co. Ltd v. Continental Tyre & Rubber Co. Ltd (concerning the concept of “control” and enemy character of a company)

C. Dinshaw Maneckjee Petit, Re (Corporate veil was lifted in this case

D. People Pleasure Park Co. v. Rohleder

Correct Answer: D

29. The most important feature of a ‘partnership at will’ is:

A. sharing of losses

B. Registration not needed

C. Easy Dissolubility

D. Utmost Transparency

Correct Answer: C, S/7

30. The Doctrine of Holding out is an application of the principle of:

A. Agency

B. Estoppel

C. Vicarious liability

D. Privity of Contract

Correct Answer: B, S/32

31. When a minor, who was admitted to the benefits of Partnership becomes a partner upon attaining the age of majority, his personal liability commences from:

A. The date of his first admission to benefit of partnership

B. the date of majority, if he continues in partnership

C. the date fixed by all the partners

D. only his assets or contributions to the partnership is liable

Correct Answer: A

32. A partner of an unregistered firm cannot sue:

A. for enforcing a right under the partnership Act

B. for enforcing a right arising out of the partnership act

C. For dissolution of Partnership firm

D. both A and B

Correct Answer: D, S/69

33. Which of the following cannot be claimed by a partner as a matter of right?

A. Right to take part in business

B. Right to have access to account books

C. Right to share profits

D. Right to receive remuneration

Correct Answer: D, S/13- Mutual Rights and Liabilities

34. A, though involved in a motor accident, remained physically unhurt but suffered Myaglic Encephalomyelitis, a psychiatric illness which he had earlier suffered but which was then in remission. He claimed damages from the driver of the motor car. Will he succeed?

A. No, this illness was not foreseeable in a person of normal health.

B. No, he has not suffered any physical injury

C. Yes, he has suffered injuries by shock

D. Yes, though this illness was not foreseeable but foreseeability of some physical harm was there.

Correct Answer: D

35. Under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, ‘complaint’ means an allegation of:

i. an unfair trade practice or a restrictive trade practice
ii. Defective goods
iii. Deficiency in service
iv. Charging a price in excess of the price agreed

A. i and iv

B. i, ii, iii

C. ii and iii

D. i, ii, iii and iv

Correct Answer: D

36. Who among the following cannot be a complainant under the Consumer Protection Act 1986?

A. a consumer

B. customer’s friend

C. any voluntary consumer organization

D. central government or any state government

Correct Answer: B

37. A car mechanic was employed by his master, the defendant to repair cars. He repaired a car and then drove the car for a short distance to check whether he had repaired it properly or not. In the process he caused an accident injuring the plaintiff. The master is:

A. liable because it was his servant who had negligently caused the accident for which he was vicariously liable.

B. not liable because the mechanic was supposed to repair only and as such driving by him was outside his course of employment.

C. liable because driving was necessarily incidental to the duties of the mechanic since he was duty bound to check by driving whether the repair he had done were correctly done or not.

D. it depends solely on the discretion of the court in such cases to decide as to whether the master is liable or not.

Correct Answer: C

38. In deciding the question of negligence by professionals, the classical statement of law which has been widely accepted as decisive of the standard of care required both of professionals generally and medical practitioners in particular is popularly called

A. Stephen test

B. Frien test

C. Bolam test

D. Hyde test

Correct Answer: C

39. Which of the following statements are not correct?
1. Res ipsa loquitur is used for the purpose of fixation of liability based on strict liability.
2. Inference of negligence could properly be drawn in res ipsa loquitur
3. Res ipsa loquitur dispenses with taking of evidence.
4. Res ipsa loquitur mostly favours the defendant

A. 1,2 and 3

B. 1, 3 and 4

C. 2,3 and 4

D. 1,2 and 4

Correct Answer: B

40. In which of the following cases, Justice Kennedy’s limitation to the claims relating to nervous shock that “the shock must have been due to fear of immediate personal injury to oneself” was rejected?

A. King v. Phillips, (1953) 1 QB 429

B. Dulieu v. White & Sons, (1921) 2 KB 669

C. Hambrook v. Stokes Brothers, (1925) 1 KB 141

D. Mcloughlin v. O’ Brien, (1983) 1 AC 410

Correct Answer: B

41. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. In tort, the duties are imposed by law whereas in contract, the duties are undertaken by the parties themselves.

B. In tort, the duty is towards the world at large but in contract, the duty is towards specific individual or individuals.

C. In tort, the damages are liquidated but in contract, the damages are unliquidated.

D. In tort the damages are unliquidated but in contract, the damages are liquidated.

Correct Answer: C

42. Any amount due from a person under an order made by a Consumer Forum, under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, can be recovered by:

A. Collector of the district in the same manner as arrears of land revenue.

B. The consumer Forum by an order of attachment of property.

C. Collector of the district by an order of attachment of property.

D. The consumer Forum in the same manner as arrears of land revenue.

Correct Answer: A, S/25

43. Which one of the following disputes cannot be raised before the Consumer Forum?

A. A dispute relating to services by a government servant.

B. a dispute relating to services provided by the medical professional.

C. a dispute relating to banking service.

D. a dispute relating to insurance services.

Correct Answer: A

44. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. The liability of master and servant is joint.

B. The liability of master and servant is several.

C. the liability of master and servant is sometimes joint and sometimes several depending on circumstances.

D. The liability of master and servant is joint and several.

Correct Answer: D

45. In which of the following cases, insulting words cannot form the basis of an action of defamation?

A. written in a post card.

B. written in a group whatsapp message.

C. written in an inland letter

D. written on the notice board.

Correct Answer: C

46. What was the rule laid down by the privy council in “wagon mound” case?

A. The defendant is liable only for that injury which could be reasonable foreseen as occurring due to defendant’s fault.

B. the defendant is liable for all the injuries which occur as a direct consequence of defendant fault.

C. the defendant is not liable, unless the plaintiff proves that he suffered injuries due to defendant’s negligence.

D. the defendant is not liable if he proves that the plaintiff suffered injury owing to his contributory negligence.

Correct Answer: A

47. Which of the following acts invites tortious liability and is not saved by the Doctrine “Volenti Non fit injuria” ?

A. A surgeon amputates a limb of a patient to save his life

B. Injury is caused while play-fighting with the naked swords at a religious function.

C. Injury is caused to a player in football match.

D. Injury is caused while doing lawful acts under contract.

Correct Answer: B

48. “A” had constructed a temporary structure on a land belonging to the Municipal Corporation in which he ran a flourishing restaurant that was frequented by elites of the town. The Municipal Corporation constructed a huge public Toilet in the plot adjoining A’s famous restaurant. Does A have any remedy under the law of tort?

A. He has no remedy because he did not own the plot

B. he has remedy to get the Municipal Corporations’ action stopped as it constituted a nuisance

C. He had the freedom to hedge the restaurant by erecting screens and boards

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: A

49. Injuria Sine Damnum relates to the case where there is:

A. An invasion of an absolute private right

B. An invasion of a public right

C. A violation of a legal right

D. A legally authorized act resulting in injury.

Correct Answer: C

50. X wants to purchase Y’s car and drives it to test it with Y seated by his sides. Because of X’s negligence an accident occurs and “Z” is injured. Z sues Y for damages. In this case:

A. Y is not liable as X was driving the car for his own purpose.

B. Y is not liable as X was not the servant of Y.

C. Y is liable because he had not abandoned his right and duty to control the way in which the car was driven.

D. Y is liable because X was driving the car for Y’s purpose.

Correct Answer: C

51. Owing to the negligence of the defendant railway company, the plaintiff and his family were made to get down at the wrong railway station. No accommodation was provided. As a result, the plaintiff’s wife caught cold. The plaintiff claimed damages for consequential loss on account of medical expenses incurred for her treatment and her loss on account of medical expenses incurred for her treatment and her loss due to pay-cut in office. The claim for damages will not succeed on the ground of

A. Unreasonableness

B. Remoteness of damage

C. Plaintiff own over-sensitive health.

D. Magnifying a small discomfort

Correct Answer: B

52. Which one of the following statements is correct:

A. In case of absolute privilege, action can lie for a defamatory statement made without malice.

B. In matters of qualified privilege no action lies for a defamatory statement even though the statement is false or has been made maliciously.

C. In matters of absolute privilege, no action lies for a defamatory statement even though the statement is false or has been made maliciously.

D. In matter of qualified privilege, action can lie for a defamatory statement made without malice.

Correct Answer: C

53. A lawful act does not become unlawful even if it was done with evil motive. This was held in:

A. Ashby v. White (When the actions of one party hinder the rights of another, that party may be found liable)

B. Mayor of Bradford Corpn. V, pickles

C. Christie v. Davey.

D. Hollywood Silver Fox Farm Ltd. V. Emnett (Private Nuisance)

Correct Answer: B

54. The Supreme Court brought services provided by medical professionals within the ambit of Consumer Protection Act, 1986 in the case of:

A. Spring Meadows Hospital v. Hajrol Ahluwalia

B. Indian Medical Association v. V.P. Shantha

C. Visakha v. State of Rajasthan

D. P. Narasimha Rao v. G. Jayaprakasu

Correct Answer: B

55. An order under Section 24 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955:

A. Is an interlocutory order and no appeal lies against it.

B. Is an appealable order generally.

C. Is an appealable order but with the leave of the court only.

D. may be appealable depending upon the sole discretion of the court.

Correct Answer: A

56. Under Hindu Law, in relation to the children of void marriages:

A. a court declaration is necessary to confer a status of legitimacy.

B. a court declaration is not necessary to confer a status of legitimacy

C. Such a Child becomes legitimate after reaching the age of 18 years.

D. such a child cannot legitimate.

Correct Answer: B

57. Under Hindu Law, if a minor marries without the consent of the parents/guardian, the marriage would be:

A. Invalid

B. Void

C. Valid

D. Both A and B

Correct Answer: C

58. Match List I with list II and select the correct answer using the Codes given below:

List I List II
a. Marriage between parties within degrees of prohibited relationship 1. Voidable
b. Impotency 2. Void
c. Marriage between, 2 parties who are sapindas of each other 3. Voidable
d. Pregnancy of wife at the time of marriage by some person other than the petitioner 4. void


a. 2 1 3 4

b. 2 3 1 4

c. 2 1 4 3

d. 2 4 1 3

Correct Answer: c

59. Fine Prescribed under Section 18 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 for Child marriage has been enhanced by the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 from one thousand rupees to:

A. 10,000

B. 15,000

C. 50, 000

D. 1,00,000

Correct Answer: D

60. ‘Desertion’ within the purview of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is:

A. a total repudiation of obligations of marriage.

B. a partial repudiation of the obligations of marriage.

C. a suspension of obligations of marriage.

D. equivalent to judicial separation

Correct Answer: A

61. ‘A’, a Hindu boy, aged 15 years, marries ‘B’, a Hindu Girl, aged 12 years under Hindu Marriage Act, 1955. The marriage was consummated when the girl had attained puberty (which she did at the age of 13). The girl at the age of 17

A. Can remarry without getting the marriage dissolved.

B. cannot claim divorce.

C. can seek repudiation of marriage.

D. cannot seek repudiation of marriage.

Correct Answer: C

62. Hindu Joint Family Property consists of:

A. All ancestral property

B. property acquired with the aid of ancestral property.

C. Separate property of a coparcener which is voluntarily thrown by him into the common stock. To such an extent that it cannot be distinguished from Joint Family Property.

D. All of the above

Correct Answer: D

63. Assertion A: A bigamous marriage is void under Hindu Law.
Reason R: A Child born out of void marriage is deemed as legitimate child of his parents.

A. Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation of ‘A’.

B. Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of ‘A’.

C. ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false

D. ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true

Correct Answer: B

64. According to the Marriage Laws (Amendment) Act, 2003, every appeal under Section 28 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 shall be preferred within:

A. 45 days from the date of decree or order

B. 30 days from the date of decree or order.

C. 60 days from the date of decree or order.

D. 90 days from the date of decree or order

Correct Answer: D

65. G, a Hindu girl, aged 14 years, marries B, a Hindu boy, simply by exchange of garlands in a temple in Delhi. Later on, G finds that B is impotent. G leaves the matrimonial home and marries A. In the following situation:

A. G can be punished for bigamy.

B. G cannot be punished for bigamy.

C. G cannot be punished for bigamy because her first marriage was not valid on account of impotency of B.

D. G cannot be punished for bigamy because her first marriage was not valid on account of improper solemnization of marriage.

Correct Answer: D

66. After the passing of a decree for judicial separation, if one of the spouse dies intestate

A. the other spouse can inherit the property of that spouse.

B. the other spouse cannot inherit the property of that spouse

C. the other spouse can inherit the property of that spouse only with the consent of the children.

D. only the children can inherit the property of that spouse.

Correct Answer: A

67. Vijay and Saroj was a childless couple. In 1990, Vijay took in adoption his brother’s son Ajay. In 1992, a son was born to the couple. Vijay wants to give Ajay back to his brother. Can he do so?

A. anyone excluding himself

B. anyone including himself

C. anyone excluding himself and his family members

D. only his family members.

Correct Answer: B

68. A guardian of a child can give the child in adoption under Section 9(4) of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 to:

A. anyone excluding himself

B. anyone including himself

C. anyone excluding himself and his family members

D. only his family members

Correct Answer: B

69. Under Section 18(2) of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 a wife is entitled to separate residence and maintenance, if the husband is a guilty of

A. Desertion

B. Cruelty

C. Conversion to another religion

D. All the above

Correct Answer: D

70. Shyam was granted divorce against his wife Jyoti on the ground of her adultery. Jyoti filed a petition for maintenance under Section 25 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955. Mark the appropriate answer in the light of above facts.

A. Jyoti is guilty of adultery so she is not entitled to any maintenance.

B. Granting of maintenance to Jyoti would amount to giving her advantage of her own wrong.

C. Jyoti is entitled to maintenance under Section 25

D. Both A and B

Correct Answer: A

71. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court held that if the father is wholly indifferent to the matters of the minor, or is physically unable to take care of the minor for any reason whatsoever, the father can be considered to be absent within the meaning of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956?

A. Rosy Jacob v. Jacob Chakramakkal, AIR 1973 SC 2090

B. Gita Hariharan v. RBI, AIR 1999 SC 1149

C. Vishwambhar v. Laxminarayana, AIR 2001 SC 2607

D. Manik Chand v. Ramchandra, AIR 1981 SC 519

Correct Answer: B

72. Muslim male A says in the presence of X and Y “I have married myself to B” who is not present. On receiving this information B says, “I have accepted.” Which of the following is correct?

A. This constitutes a valid marriage

B. This does not constitute a valid marriage, as offer and acceptance must be made at the same time and in the same place.

C. This does not constitute a valid marriage as presence of X and Y is insufficient and more persons are required.

D. None of the above.

Correct Answer: B

73. Muslim male cannot marry:

A. wife’s mother

B. son’s wife

C. Foster sister

D. All the above

Correct Answer: D

74. Mark the incorrect statement:

A. A Shia male/female may contract a valid marriage with sunni female/male.

B. In shia law, at the time of marriage, the witnesses are not necessary

C. 2 witnesses are mandatory for sunnis at the time of marriage.

D. where consent to the marriage has not been obtained, consummation even against the will of women will validate the marriage.

Correct Answer: D

75. If a Muslim woman is pregnant at the time of death of her husband, the period of Iddat is for:

A. 3 months and 10 days or upto delivery whichever period is longer.

B. 4 months and 10 days or upto delivery whichever period is longer

C. 5 months and 10 days or upto delivery whichever period is longer

D. 6 months and 10 days or upto delivery whichever period is longer.

Correct Answer: B

76. If the parties to a contract agree to substitute a new contract for it, or to rescind or alter it, the original contract need to be performed.” The statement relates to:

A. Substitute for a contractual party

B. the effect of novation, recission and alteration of contract.

C. unilateral alteration of a contract.

D. a substitute contract without consideration.

Correct Answer: B, S/62, Effect of novation, rescission, and alteration of contract

77. which one of the following is a contingent contract?

A. ‘A’ insures his factory against damage as destruction by fire.

B. ‘A’ sells his property subject to the condition that the property will be reconveyed to him on repayment of price with interest.

C. A guard is appointed at a swimming pool for the sole purpose of rescuing drowning persons.

D. A borrower solemnly promises to pay off the lender when the borrower will be in funds.

Correct Answer: A

78. An agreement not enforceable by law is said to be:

A. Void Contract

B. Voidable contract

C. illegal contract

D. Quasi Contract

Correct Answer: A

79. Under the Indian Contract Act, a proposal when accepted becomes:

A. a promise under Section 2(b)

B. an agreement under Section 2(e)

C. a contract under section 2 (h)

D. none of the above

Correct Answer: A

80. ‘X’ applied for the post of principal of a local college and the governing body passed a resolution appointing him. After the meeting, one of the members of the governing body privately informed him of the resolution. Subsequently, the resolution was rescinded. ‘X’ claims damages

A. ‘X’ cannot claim damages as there was no communication.

B. ‘X’ can claim damages as there was private communication of resolution.

C. ‘X’ is not qualified for the post, so he cannot claim damages.

D. the governing body cannot rescind the resolution once passed, so, ‘X’ can claim damages.

Correct Answer: A

81. A proposal is revoked by:

A. Communication of notice of revocation

B. failure of acceptor to fulfill a condition precedent to acceptance.

C. insanity of proposer when acceptor comes to know it before the acceptance

D. All of the above

Correct Answer: D

82. Exceptions to the doctrine of ‘privity of contract do not include:

A. beneficiaries under a charge.

B. equitable mortgage

C. estoppel

D. marriage settlement

Correct Answer: B

83. Section 25 of the Indian Contract Act lays down a few exceptions, when agreement made without consideration is not valid. Which of the following is such an exception:

A. a written and registered agreement based on natural love and affection between near relatives

B. a written agreement whereby one party promises to compensate the other for past involuntary service.

C. an oral agreement by one party to contract to another party to pay a time-barred debt

D. all of the above

Correct Answer: A

84. If minor is supplied with necessaries:

A. minor is personally liable.

B. neither minor, nor his estate or property is liable

C. minor’s estate or property is liable

D. minor is liable on becoming major

Correct Answer: C

85. The case of Mohiri Bibi v Dharmo Das Ghose

I. Is the decision of Supreme Court of India regarding extraordinary contracts.
II. Has laid down that in India a minor’s contract is void ab initio.
III. Has laid down that a minor’s contract becomes valid when he attains majority

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

A. I and III

B. III alone

C. I and II

D. II alone

Correct Answer: D

86. Under Indian Contract Act, which one of the following does not amount to fraud?

A. Suggestion as a fact of that which is not true by one who does not believe it to be true

B. Active Concealment of a fact.

C. A false representation made without knowing it to be false.

D. A promise made without any intention of performing it

Correct Answer: C

87. A master asks his servant to sell his bike to him at a price less than the market price. This contract can be avoided by the servant on the ground of:

A. Coercion

B. Fraud

C. mistake

D. undue influence

Correct Answer: D

88. Effect of frustration of contract is that:

A. Promisor is excused from performance.

B. contract dissolved automatically

C. Contract becomes voidable at the option of promisor.

D. Both A and B

Correct Answer: D

89. A is a tenant of B. A is interested in payment of property tax which B is bound by law to pay. A pays the tax on behalf of owner B because B was not willing to pay it. A is:

A. entitled to be reimbursed by B.

B. not entitled to be reimbursed by B

C. entitled to demand an equal contribution from B

D. entitled to sell B’s property

Correct Answer: A

90. Under Law of contract, the primary aim of the law of damages is to:

A. Punish the party who has committed the breach of contract.

B. enrich the party who sustained the loss.

C. place the party who sustained the loss in the same position as if the contract has been performed.

D. all of the above

Correct Answer: C

91. Hadley v. Baxendale is a leading case on:

A. Anticipatory breach

B. remoteness of damage

C. breach of implied term

D. all of the above

Correct Answer: B

92. A person who sues for damages, under the law of contract:

A. has a duty to mitigate the loss consequent upon the breach of contract.

B. has no duty to mitigate the loss consequent upon the breach of contract.

C. can claim damages for the sum inclusive of the amount of loss due to his negligence

D. none of the above

Correct Answer: A

93. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in a claim for damages for breach of contract?

A. Contract, breach, damages

B. Offer, no acceptance, damages

C. Acceptance, no consideration, damages

D. Contract, offer, damages

Correct Answer: A

94. Under the Indian Contract Act, an agreement by a heavily drunk person has the same consequence as that of:

A. A minor’s agreement

B. A gangster’s agreement

C. A monk’s agreement

D. A mistaken agreement

Correct Answer: A

95. A person who finds goods belonging to another, and takes them into his custody, is subject to the same responsibility as a/an:

A. Mortgagee

B. Bailee

C. Bailor

D. Owner

Correct Answer: B

96. When the goods are capable of many purposes and the buyer does not mention his purpose to the seller:

A. The condition as to fitness can be implied.

B. The condition as to fitness cannot be implied

C. The condition as to fitness ca be implied depending upon the circumstances of each case.

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: B, S/16, Implied conditions as to quality or fitness

97. A contract of sale is a contract of sale by sample:

A. Only when there is an express term in the contract to that effect

B. only when there is an implied term in the contract to that effect

C. When there is an express or implied term in the contract to the effect.

D. irrespective of whether the contract contains a term for that effect or not.

Correct Answer: C, S/17 – Sale by sample

98. Which of the following conditions is to be satisfied, to avail the exception under Section 16(1) of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930?

A. The buyer should make known to the seller the particular purpose for which the goods are required.

B. The buyer should rely on the seller’s skill or judgment.

C. The goods must be of description which the seller supplies in course of his business

D. All of the above

Correct Answer: D

99. Baldry v. Marshall is a leading case relating to:

A. Fitness for buyer

B. Sale under a patent or trade name.

C. Consent by fraud

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: A

100. In which of the following cases the transit comes to an end?

A. where the buyer or his agent in that behalf obtains delivery of the goods before their arrival at the appointed destination.

B. Where after the arrival of the goods at the appointed destination, the carrier or other bailee acknowledges to the buyer or his agent that he holds the goods on his behalf and continues in possession of them as bailee for the buyer or his agent.

C. Where the carrier or other bailee wrongfully refuses to deliver the goods to the buyer or his agent in this behalf.

D. All of the above

Correct Answer: D, S/51- Duration of transit

101.’Good Faith’ within the meaning of the Indian Penal Code means:

A. an act done with due care and attention

B. an actual belief that the act done is not contrary to law

C. an act, in fact, done honestly

D. an act done under religious relief

Correct Answer: A

102. X, with the intention to kill Y, supplies him a poisoned apple. Y discovers that the apple is poisoned and gives it to a minor child to eat. The child eats it and dies. In this case:

A. X is guilty of murder and Y is guilty of abetment of murder.

B. X as well as Y is guilty of murder

C. Y is guilty of murder and X does not commit any offence.

D. X is guilty of attempt to murder and Y is guilty of murder

Correct Answer: D

103. A attacks B to permanently disfigure his face; A could not do so, but causes B severe bodily pain for 15 days. A commits the offence of:

A. Voluntarily causing grievous hurt

B. Voluntarily causing hurt

C. attempt to murder

D. affray

Correct Answer: B

104. X takes a girl out of the custody of her lawful guardians. Which of the following is a complete defence if X is charged under Section 361 of the IPC for kidnapping on the ground that the girl was below the age of 18 years when taken away:

A. the girl was maltreated by the guardians and X promised her a better life.

B. the girl was a student in a college and could understand what was right or wrong for her.

C. the girl looked more than 18 years of age.

D. none of the above

Correct Answer: D

105. In cases of dishonest misappropriation, the initial possession of the property is:

A. dishonest

B. fraudulent

C. innocent

D. both A and B

Correct answer: C

106. Section 76 provides that nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is or who by reason of:

A. mistake of fact in good faith believes himself to be bound by law to do it

B. mistake of law in good faith believes himself to be bound by law to do it.

C. both A and B

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: A

107. The difference between Section 34 and Section 149 of IPC is:

A. that whereas in Section 34 there must be at least 5 persons; Section 149 requires only 2 persons

B. that Section 149 is only a ‘rule of evidence’, whereas Section 34 creates a specific substantive offence.

C. that Section 34 requires active participation in action, whereas Section 149 requires mere passive membership of the unlawful assembly.

D. that Section 34 need not be joined with the principal offence, whereas Section 149 must be combined with the principal offence.

Correct Answer: C

108. Abetment under Section 107 of the IPC can be constituted by:

A. Instigation

B. Conspiracy

C. Intentional aid

D. all of the above

Correct Answer: D

109. A invited his friend B to his house for dinner. While there were having dinner, B made certain unwanted comments about the married sister of A. Frustrated A started abusing B and also said that he is a womanizer and a cheat and has misappropriated huge funds of his employer. B sued A for defamation.

A. A is liable as he made derogatory statements about B.

B. A is liable as he did not act as a good friend.

C. A is not liable as he has not communicated these statements to anybody except B.

D. A is not liable as he made defamatory statements on being provoked by B himself

Correct Answer: C

110. Mark the incorrect statement (s)

A. An inquiry into an offence never ends in a conviction on acquittal. At the most it may result in discharge or commitment of a case for trial by Magistrate.

B. Trial is a judicial process whereas investigation is an administrative process.

C. both A and B

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: D

111. In a bailable offence:

A. Conditions ca be imposed while granting bail by the police officer.

B. any conditions can be imposed while granting bail by the court

C. no condition can be imposed while granting bail by the police officer or by the court.

D. only mild/nominal conditions can be imposed and that too by the court.

Correct Answer: C

112. Under the scheme of Code of Criminal Procedure, non-cognizable offences are:

A. public wrongs

B. private wrongs

C. both public and private wrongs

D. none of the above

Correct Answer: B

113. A summon issued by a court must be in:

A. Writing

B. duplicate

C. signed by the presiding officer of the court or other officer as directed by the High Court.

D. all the above

Correct Answer: D

114. A threatens to set a dog at Z, if Z goes along a path by which Z has a right to go. The dog is not really savage, but A causes Z to think so. Z gives up the attempt. A is guilty of:

A. wrongful confinement

B. wrongful restraint

C. both A and B

D. rightful confinement

Correct Answer: B

115. A bullock cart carrying a box of treasure is intercepted by ‘A’ with dishonest intention and moved the car in his direction. The offence of theft is committed by ‘A’ if and as soon as:

A. he seizes the bullock

B. he takes the box of treasure

C. he appropriates the contents of the box.

D. the bullock is made to move by him in his direction

Correct Answer: D

116. Which one of the following statements correctly distinguished theft from extortion:

A. in theft, there is dishonest intention whereas in extortion, it is not there

B. in extortion, there is dishonest intention whereas in theft it is not there

C. in theft, there is dishonest intention whereas in extortion it is fraudulent intention.

D. in theft there is taking of property whereas in extortion there is delivery of property

Correct Answer: D

117. ‘R’ takes a loan from ‘M’ on the security of his bike. But when ‘M’ was away, ‘R’ took away the vehicle. The loan was not repaid. ‘R’ is guilty of:

A. No offence as the bike belonged to him

B. no offence as what he owes is more money that could be repaid.

C. theft as he takes away the vehicle from the possession of ‘M’ with dishonest intention.

D. dishonest misappropriation of property as he had no right to appropriate the same.

Correct Answer: C

118. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using codes given below:

119. Section 82 of the IPC provides that nothing is an offence which is done by a child under:

A. 5 years of age

B. 11 years of age

C. 7 year of age

D. 9 years of age

Correct Answer: C

120. ‘A’, is a surgeon knowing fully well, that except a miracle, nothing can save ‘X’, who is ailing from a deadly disease, operates on ‘X’ , acting in good faith. However, as on sequence of the operation ‘X’ dies. A is guilty of:

A. ‘A’ is guilty of murder since he knew well that ‘X’ will not survive

B. ‘A’ is guilty of murder because the death is the direct consequence of the operation.

C. ‘A’ is not guilty because he acted in good faith although knowing well that X may die

D. both A and B

Correct Answer: C

121. Section 84 of IPC deals with the act of a person who has:

A. Person of unsound mind

B. person who does not have maturity of understanding

C. Both A and B

D. none of the above

Correct Answer: B

122. Under Section 98 of the IPC, right of private defence is also available against A:

A. A person of unsound mind

B. person who does not have maturity of understanding

C. Both A and B

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: C

123. In the Water Act, the entire National Capital Territory of Delhi has been declared as water pollution prevention control area under:

A. Section 21 (Power to take samples of effluents and procedure to be followed in connection therewith )

B. Section 23 (Power of entry and inspection )

C. Section 19

D. Section 24 (Prohibition on use of stream or well for disposal of polluting matter, etc. )

Correct Answer: C, Power of State Government to restrict the application of the Act to certain areas

124. The Supreme Court allowed compensation of Rs. 23.84 lakhs and later allowed additional compensation of Rs. 47 lakhs to the farmers whose crops got damaged, being irrigated by subsoil water drawn from a stream which was

A. Vellore Citizens welfare Forum v. UOI

B. Indian Council for Environment Action v. UOI

C. S. Jagannath v. UOI

D. Narmada Bachao Andolan v. UOI

Correct Answer: B

125. The power to declare an area as a sanctuary or national park of Central Government in Wildlife (Protection) Act is under:

A. Section 38

B. Section 39 (Wild animals, etc., to be Government property)

C. Section 18 Declaration of sanctuary

D. Section 27 (Restriction on entry in sanctuary)

Correct Answer: A

126. Which of the following is not an essential qualification for appointment as a Governor?

A. He must not be a member of either House of Parliament

B. He should be a domicile of the state to which he is being appointed

C. He should be a citizen of India

D. He must have completed the age of 35 years

Correct Answer: B

127. Of the following under which provision is the superintendence, direction and control of the electoral roll vested in the Election Commission of India?

A. Section 15 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950

B. Rule 25 of the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960

C. Article 324 of the Constitution of India

D. Para 13(1) of the Handbook of Electoral Registration Officer

Correct Answer: C

128. What are the reasons due to which a person could be considered unfit for registration in the electoral roll?

I. being an Indian Citizen

II being of unsound mind and standing declared as such by a competent court

III. Disqualified from voting for the time being under the provisions of any law relating to corrupt practices and other offences in connection with elections.

IV. Being less than 18 years of age.

V. Being ordinarily resident of a constituency

A. None of these

B. II and V

C. III and V

D. II, III and IV

Correct Answer: D

129. The charge of impeachment against the president of India for his removal can be preferred by:

A. Either Houses of Parliament

B. Only Rajya Sabha

C. Only Lok Sabha

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: A

130. When can president use his discretion in appointing the Prime Minister?

A. When no political party enjoys a clear majority in the Lok Sabha.

B. Only when the Lok Sabha has been dissolved

C. In all circumstances

D. In no circumstances

Correct Answer: A

131. Which one of the following is not an All India Service?

A. Indian Administrative Service

B. Indian Police Service

C. Indian Foreign Service

D. Indian Forest Service

Correct Answer: C

132. Article 343 of the constitution declares Hindi as the:

A. National Language

B. State Language

C. Official Language of the Union

D. Administrative Language of the Union

Correct Answer: C

133. Law making is the duty of the Legislature. Bye-law making power granted to the Executive by the Legislature is called:

A. Colourable Legislation

B. Administrative legislation

C. Legislature cannot delegate its power

D. Delegated legislation

Correct Answer: D

134. In case of Armed Forces, the fundamental rights granted under Articles 14 and 19 of the Constitution are:

A. available only according to law made by the parliament.

B. available to them only upon attaining majority

C. available only at the discretion of president depending upon the circumstances.

D. not available to them

Correct Answer: A

135. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court rule that the principle of sovereign immunity will not apply to a proceeding for award of compensation for violation of Fundamental Rights?

A. Bhim Singh v. State of Punjab

B. Kasturi Lal v. State of U.P

C. Rudal Shah v. State of Bihar

D. Neelabati Behra v. State of Orissa

Correct Answer: D

136. In which of the following circumstances, preventive detention can be enforced as per Article 22 of the constitution?

A. During Civil riots.

B. During communal violence

C. During emergency

D. During normal times

Correct Answer: D

137. Under which jurisdiction, the Supreme Court hears dispute between the Government of India and one or more states?

A. Advisory jurisdiction

B. Appellate Jurisdiction

C. Extraordinary Jurisdiction

D. Original Jurisdiction

Correct Answer: D

138. “Autre fois Acquit” principle is related to

A. Self-incrimination

B. ex-post facto law

C. retrospective law

D. double jeopardy

Correct Answer: D

139. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution authorizes the President of India to suspend the Fundamental Rights?

A. Article 359

B. Article 369

C. Article 379

D. Article 370

Correct Answer: A

140. As per decision of the Supreme Court of India in the case of Selvi v state of Karnataka, compulsory use of Narco-Analysis test, Brain Mapping and Polygraph test violates:

A. Article 20(3) of the constitution

B. Article 19(c) of the constitution

C. Article 22 (d) of the constitution

D. Article 23 of the Constitution

Correct Answer: A

141. The phrase ‘due process of law’ means:

A. the judges in India cannot question the fairness or validity of a law, if it is within the limits of the constitution

B. judges in India can question the fairness or validity of an undue law if in their opinion it is unjust and in violation of natural law.

C. judges in India can declare a law invalid simply because they don’t like it

D. Black letter law

Correct Answer: B

142. Which one of the following is not a “Money Bill”?

A. A Bill, only containing provision dealing with the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax

B. A Bill providing for the imposition of fines or other pecuniary penalties.

C. A bill, only containing provision dealing with the appropriation of moneys out of the consolidated Fund of India.

D. A Bill, only containing provision dealing with the appropriation of moneys out of the Consolidated Fund of India.

Correct Answer: B

143. Which Article of the Constitution makes common law applicable in India?

A. Article 368 (power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and procedure therefor)

B. Article 372 A (Power of the president to adapt laws)

C. Article 372 (Continuance in force of existing laws and their adaptation)

D. Article 360

Correct Answer: C

144. In which recent case the Supreme Court held that the Transgenders falls in the category of Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBs)

A. NALSA V. Union of India

B. Dasrath Singh Roop Singh Rathore v. State of Maharashtra

C. Arnesh Kumar v. State of Bihar

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: A

145. Parliament of India can make use of the Residuary Powers for the purpose of making law:

A. At all times

B. Only during war

C. Only during state emergency

D. Only during Financial emergency

Correct Answer: A

146. Who among the following is the ex-officio chairman of the zonal councils?

A. Prime Minister

B. Vice-President

C. Union Home Minister

D. President

Correct Answer: C

147. By the 99th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2014 National Judicial Appointments Commission was introduced to replace the existing Collegium system for appointment of judges. Two eminent Persons nominated by a committee will be a part of the Commission. This Committee does not include:

A. Prime Minister

B. Chief Justice of India

C. Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha

D. Speaker of Lok Sabha

Correct Answer: D

148. The corruption charges against the civil servants of Central Government are probed by the:

A. Cabinet Secretariat

B. Prime Minister’s Office

C. Central Vigilance Commission

D. Consultative Committees of different departments

Correct Answer: C

149. Which Article confers advisory or consultative jurisdiction on Supreme Court?

A. Article 131 (Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court Subject to the provisions of this Constitution)

B. Article 140 (Ancillary powers of Supreme Court)

C. Article 142 (Enforcement of decrees and orders of Supreme Court and unless as to discovery, etc)

D. Article 143

Correct Answer: D

150. The Right to Education Act makes it mandatory for educational institutions to reserve 25% seats for the children belonging to Economically weaker sections. However, this Act is not applicable to:

A. unaided Private Schools

B. Aided Private Schools

C. Aided or Un-aided Minority Schools

D. All of the above

Correct Answer: C

List I (Jurist) List II (Theory)
A. Roscoe Pound 1. Social Control
B. Duguit 2. Pleasure Pain
C. Bentham 3. Social Engineering
D. Ihering 4. Social Solidarity

151. Match list I (jurists) with list II (Theory) and select the correct answer using the codes given below:


a. 3 2 4 1

b. 2 4 3 1

c. 3 4 2 1

d. 2 3 4 1

Correct Answer: C

152. Mark the incorrect option:

a. Command Bentham
b. Norms Hart
c. Rules Kelsen
d. All of the above

Correct Answer: D

153. Who among the following called Austin’s analytical school as imperative school?

A. Salmond

B. Allen

C. Holland

D. Gray

Correct Answer: B

154. The statement “there is no distinction between public and private law” is attributed to:

A. Comte

B. Spencer

C. Duguit

D. Ehlrich

Correct Answer: C

155. In which case it was held that a bundle of notes found on the floor of a shop passed into the possession of the finder?

A. R v. Reley

B. Armory v. Delamirie

C. Hannah v. Peel

D. Ancona v. Rogers

Correct Answer: B × Wrong Question

Correct Answer: Bridges V. Hawkesworth

156. Which of the following objections have been raised against Savigny’s idea of Volkgeist?

A. It attempted to transplant nearly thousand years old Roman law in the alien climate of Europe.

B. All laws would be directed only to officials and would be too complex to identify or handle.

C. Classification of rights and duties do not indicate the existence of any internal structure

D. All of the above

Correct Answer: A

Theory of Corporate Personality Propounder
  1. Realist
II. Symbolist Savigny
III. Fiction Ihering

157. Which of the following Combination(s) is/are correct?

  1. I, II and III
  2. I and II
  3. II and III
  4. I alone

Correct Answer: D

158. Statutes are “sources of law ….. Not parts of the law itself.” This statement is made by:

A. Austin

B. Savigny

C. Gray

D. Pound

Correct Answer: C

159. It is said that the next step forward in the long path of man’s progress must be from jurisprudence to jurimetrics. In this context, what does jurimetrics signify?

1. speculation about law
2. scientific investigation of legal problems
3. Application of quantitative methods specially statistics to law.
4. Relationship between law, economy and society
select the correct answer using the codes below:

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 2, 3 and 4

C. 1,3 and 4

D. 1,2 and 4

Correct Answer: B

160. Which one of the following schools consider law as the means by which the individual’s will is harmonized with the general will of the community?

A. Sociological School

B. Philosophical School

C. Historical School

D. Analytical School

Correct Answer: A

161. Which theory of punishment was recognized by Manu?

A. Deterrent theory

B. Retributive theory

C. Preventive theory

D. Reformative theory

Correct Answer: A

162. “A judge is sworn to determine, not according to is own private judgment, but according to the known laws and customs of the land, not delegated to pronounce a new law, but to maintain and explain the old one.”

The above statement was given by

A. Bentham

B. Blackstone

C. Gray

D. Salmond

Correct Answer: B

163. The pure theory of law is:

A. A theory of positive law in general

B. Experimental theory

C. A combination of the morals and philosophy of law.

D. All of the above

Correct Answer: A

164. According to Prof. Rawls, the first priority rule is the:

A. Priority of liberty

B. Priority of welfare

C. Priority of Justice

D. Priority of efficiency

Correct Answer: A

165. Who wrote the book “Taking Rights Seriously”?

A. Lon Fuller

B. Justice Holmes

C. H.L.A. Hart

D. R. Dworkin

Correct Answer: D

166. Who propounded the theory ‘Justice as Fairness’?

A. John Rawls

B. Robert Nozick

C. Ronald Dworkin

D. Stammler

Correct Answer: C

167. The expression ‘law’ in relation to Jurisprudence means:

A. Law in utopic sense

B. Positive law only

C. fundamental legal principles.

D. theories of punishment

Correct Answer: C

168. Who propounded the theory that “The end of legislation is the greatest happiness of the greatest number”?

A. Jeremy Bentham

B. Karl Marx

C. Socrates

D. Montesquieu

Correct Answer: A

169. A distinction between static and progressive societies was drawn by:

A. Pound

B. Hart

C. Savigny

D. Maine

Correct Answer: D

170. The idea of social contract was conceived of by Rosseau as being:

A. Contracts as per the law

B. Sovereignty of the law

C. Law being a combination of rules.

D. Contract as per certain social groups

Correct Answer: B

171. Which of the following is a source of international law as per article 38(1) of the Statute of ICJ?

A. Teachings of the most highly qualified publicists

B. International Declaration

C. General Assembly Resolutions

D. Equity

Correct Answer: A

172. Which of the following is an incorrect pair?

A. Anglo-Norwegian Fisheries Case-Straight baseline method for measuring breadth of territorial sea

B. North Sea Continental Shelf cases-Delimitation of continental shelf

C. Lotus Case-Rights of the land-locked states

D. Corfu Channel Case-Right of innocent passage

Correct Answer: C, Customary Law

173. The binding force of international law is based on a fundamental principle known as pacta sunt servanda. Who said this?

A. Anzilloti

B. Austin

C. Kelsen

D. Grotius

Correct Answer: A

174. “Having concern for the urgency of conserving and prudently utilizing its natural resources, the government of the United States regards the natural resources of the subsoil and seabed of the continental shelf beneath the high seas but contiguous to the coasts of the United States as appertaining to the United States, subject to its jurisdiction and control.” who made this proclamation?

A. Elihu Root

B. Hugo Grotious

C. Arvid Pardo

D. Harry S. Truman

Correct Answer: D

175. Who is commonly known as Father of Law of Nations?

A. Gray

B. Grotious

C. Kelsen

D. Hall

Correct Answer: B

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